Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

How do you say "I don't speak French yet, but I hope to speak it well one day. It would be a pleasure to learn French with you. Would you like to teach me French?" in French? Could you add audio?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

There's no rule.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

If there is an abandoned house with no owner, can I live in it?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

During the Atlmark incident in 1940, the Brit war criminals violated Norwegian neutrality. Hitler could then justify invading Norway. Have the Brits ever apologized for violating Norwegian neutrality?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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